WASSCE 2006

Objectives



1. The following life processes are common to both plants and animals except

A. Respiration

B. Growth

C. Reproduction

D. Photosynthesis


2. Which of these organelles is common to both plant and animal cells?

A. Chloroplast

B. Centriole

C. Mitochondrion

D. Pyrenoid


3. The epidermis of the mammalian skin is an example of a tissue because the cells

A. Prevent light from passing through them

B. Have a similar structure and function

C. Prevents excessive loss of water

D. Are impregnated with keratin


4. Which of the following statements is correct about organs?

A. They are composed of specialized cells

B. They perform a certain overall function

C. They are not found in plants

D. Unicellular animals have few organs.


5. The structure used, for movement in Amoeba is

A. Cilia

B. Pseudopodia

C. Flagella

D. Endoplasm



6. Which of the following parts of a cell is not an organelle?

A. Food vacuole

B. Mitochondnon

C. Cell wall

D. Nucleus


7. The folded portion of mitochondrion is called

A. Cristea

B. Cell membrane

C. Nucleolus

D. Partition


8. The physical process which occurs when a red blood cell is placed in distilled water causing it to burst and break down is known as

A. Crenation

B. Plasmolysis

C. Turgidity

D. Haemolysis


9. During the process of osmosis a semi-permeable mem-brane allows

A. only solute molecules to pass through it

B. both solute and solvent molecules to pass through it

C. only solvent molecules to pass through it

D. only gaseous molecules to pass through it


10. Which of the following environmental conditions is ideal for plant cells to remain turgid ?

A. Hot, dry weather

B. Windy weather

C. Cold, dry weather

D. Cool, humid weather



11. Which of the following processes does not contribute towards growth?

A. Cell division

B. Cell enlargement

C. Cell differentiation

D. Cell plasmolysis


12. The aspects of growth in living organisms include all the following processes except

A. Increase in dry weight

B. Reversible increase in size

C. Irreversible increase in length

D. Increase in number of cells


13. Support in young herbaceous plants is provided by

A. Translocation

B. Guttation

C. Turgidity

D. Osmosis


14. Which of the following heart structures is best adapted to cope with double circulation ?

A. One auricle and one ventricle

B. Two auricles and one ventricle

C. Two auricles and partially divided ventricle

D. Two auricles and ventricles


15. Which of theses factors does not contribute towards the ascent of water in plants?

A. Root pressure

B. Capillarity

C. Transpiration

D. Turgor pressure



16. The ventricles of the mammalian heart have thicker muscu¬lar walls than the auricles because the

A. Ventricles are larger

B. Ventricles receive more blood

C. Ventricles pump blood to longer distances

D. Auricles have smaller capacity


17. Geseous exchange occurs through the following structures in some organisms except

A. Spiracle and tracheae

B. Alveoli and lungs

C. Stomata and lenticels

D. Chloroplast and plastids


18. Which of the following organs in mammals is not excretory in function?

A Liver

B. Kidney

C. Pancreas

D. Lungs


19. Which of the following substances is not excretory product in mammals?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Water

C. Faeces

D. Urea


20. An organism which maintains a constant temperature irrespective of environmental temperature fluctuation is

A. An insect

B. A mammal

C. An amphibian

D. A fish



21. Which of the following conditions is responsible for the presence of sugar in the blood of diabetic patients?

A. High intake of carbonhydrates

B. Low production of insulin

C. Low intake of carbonhydrates

D. High production of insulin


22. The central nervous system in humans is made up of the

A. Brain , medulla oblongata and nerves

B. Brain, spinal cord and cranial nerves

C. Brain and spinal nerves

D. Brain and spinal cord


23. The part of the ear in mammals responsible for the detection of sound is the

A. Utriculus

B. Tympanum

C. Cochlea

D. Semi-circular canal


24. Which of the following statements best describes pollina-tion? The transfer of pollen grain from

A. Anther to stigmas

B. Stigmas to stamens

C. The anther of a flower to the stigma of another flower of a different species

D. Anther to the ovary


25. Which of the following vertebrae provide articulating surfaces for the ribs?

A. Thoracic

B. Lumbar

C. Cervical

D. Sacral



26. Which of the following is not a component of the appendicu¬lar skeleton?

A. Ulna

B. Atlas

C. Femur

D. Pelvic girdle


27. If the mucus in the air track of mammals dry up and the hairs in the nostrils are removed

A. Impure air would be breathed into their lungs

B. The speed of air movement into their lungs would increase

C. breathing air into their lungs ( would be difficult

D. more air would be taken into their lungs


28. A one-seeded fruit in which the pericarp has fused with the seed coat is classified as

A. A berry

B. A caryopsis

C. A legume

D. An achene


Study the following list of deficiency symptoms in animals, use it to answer questions 29 to 31 I. Loss of appetite and weight II. Delayed healing of wounds III. Rickets IV. Sterility in animals V. Failure of blood to clot VI. Night blindness


29. Which of the following deficiencies is caused by lack of vitamin A

A. I

B. lll

C. V

D. VI


30. Which of the following vitamins would correct Jhe deficiency numbered V?

A. Vitamin K

B. Vitamin A

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin B



31. Which of the following combination of food substances would correct the deficiency numbered II?

A. Tomatoes, oranges and mangoes

B. Yeast, liver and rice

C. Red palm oil, carrot and egg yolk

D. Green vegetables, butter and meat


32. Which of the following food substances would produce a translucent mark when rubbed on a while paper?

A. Potato

B. Beans

C. Mango

D. Groundnut


33. If an enzyme works best in an acid medium, in which of the following parts of the human gut is the pH best for enzyme activities? In the

A. Ileun, pH 9.0

B. Stomach pH 2. 0

C. duodenum, pH 7.0

D. Mouth cavity pH 8.0 34.


34. Which of the following organisms is not considered as a parasitic plant?

A. Cassytha

B. Rhizopus

C. Dodder

D. Mistletoe


35. The examples of autotrophic organisms include the following except

A. Euglene

B. Chlamydomonas

C. Hydra

D. Spirogyra



36. Which of the following organisms feeds both autotrophically and heterotrophically?

A. Hydra

B. Paramecium

C. Mucor

D. Euglena


37. Siphons and gills are structures in aquatic organisms used for

A. Gaseous exchange

B. Buoyancy

C. Excretion

D. Movement


38. The first step in carrying out ecological studies in a terres-trial habitat is

A. Puadrat sampling

B. Mapping the area

C. Collection of organisms

D. Measuring abiotic factors


39. Which of the following components of an ecosystem does not contribute to the biomass of the system?

A. Producers

B. Consumers

C. Micro-organisms

D. Habitat


40. The physical and chemical factors which affect the life of organisms in an environment are described as

A. Biotic

B. Edaphic

C. Abiotic

D. Physiographic



41. The group of several populations that interact and share a habitat, form

A. A species

B. A community

C. An ecotype

D. A tribe


42. Which of these factors are common to both aquatic and terrestrial habitats?

A. Light, rainfall and turbidity

B. Light, temperature and tide

C. Light, rainfall and temperature

D. Rainfall, turbidity and salinity


43. Organisms that feed essentially on plants within any ecosystem may be referred to as

A. Carnivores

B. Herbivores

C. Saprophytes

D. Omnivores


44. If a pond contains water weed, tadpoles, Tap-minnows (fish) and is visited after by Herons (bird) what would be the possible food chain?

A. Water weed -> Tap-minnow -> Heron-> Tadpole

B. Water weed -> tadpole -> Tap-minnow -> Heron

C. Water weed -> Heron -> Tap-minnow -> Tadpole

D. Water weed -> Tadpole -> Heron -> Tap-minnow


45. Which of the following statements about feeding relation-ships is correct?

A. In a food web on land, grasshopper feeds on praying mantis and on predator bugs

B. In a food chain on land, green plant is the producer

C. In an aquatic food chain, mollusc larvae are the producers

D. In an aquatic food web, various copepods feed on mollusc leave and on sand eel



46. Which of these diseases cannot be spread by an insect?

A. Cholera

B. Malaria

C. Trypanosomiasis

D. Measles


47. Which of the following orders correctly represents the in eutrophication?

A. Lack of oxygen-> Death of aquatic organisms-> Massive algal growth

B. Excess nitrates and phosphates -> Massive algal growth -> Lack of oxygen -> Death of aquatic organisms.

C. Heavy mineralization -> Lack of oxygen -> Massive algal growth

D. Excess nitrates-> and phosphates -> Lack of oxygen -> Massive algal growth -> Death of aquatic organisms


48. Air pollution can be reduced by the following methocs except

A. Building tall factory chimneys

B. Passing waste gases through filters and absorbers

C. Using lead-free petrol in cars

D. Recycling tins cans and bottles


49. An effective management of natural resources to ensure their continued yield from generation to generation may involve all the following except

A. Protection of wildlife

B. Prevention of habitat destruction

C Biological control of pests

D. Disposal of raw sewage into the sea


50. The following practices can contribute towards the conservation of natural resources except

A. Afforestation

B. Deforestation

C. Contour ploughing

D. Establishment of Game Reserves



51. Variation is a factor which

A. differentiates between individuals of the same species

B. qualifies an organism to live with others

C. Enable organisms to adapt to the environment

D. States the external features of an organism


52. Which of the following traits in humans is not a morprpholocal variation?

A. Height

B. Shapes of head

C. Colour of skin.

D. Ability to roll the tongue.


53. The blood group in humans referred to as a universe M recipient is

A.O

B.A

C. B

D. AB


54. If a heterozygous red flowered plant, (Rr) was self fertilized the offspring would be expected to be

A. All red flowered plants

B. All white flowered plants

C. % red flowered, . flowered plants

D. % white flowered ¼ white red flowered plants.


55. The contrasting pair of genes affecting a trait and I the same position on homologous chromosomes referred to as

A. Chromatics

B. Mutants

C. Alleles

D. Chromatin.



56. The haploid number of chromosomes in humans

A. 48

B. 46

C. 24

D. 23


57. If a pure breeding white cat (homozygous dominant)nmates with a pure breeding black cat (recessive), what would be the four colour of the F1 generation?

A. Homozygous white

B. Homozygous black

C. Heterozygous white

D. Heterozygous black


58. Courtship behaviour in animals may include all of the following except

A. Howling of a dog

B. Dancing of the worker bee

C. Croaking of a toad

D. Basking in the sun by a lizard


59. Honey-bee workers carry out the following functions excepts .

A. Laying eggs

B. Building nests

C. Cleaning the nest

D. gathering food.


60. Long necks and legs of the present day giraffes were ne of the basis of

A. Darwin's theory of evolution

B. Menders theory of inheritance

C. Lamarck's theory of of evolution

D. Devries theory of evolution.



WASSCE JUNE 2006 BIOLOGY

OBJECTIVE TEST ANSWERS

1. D 2.C 3.B 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D

11. D 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. B

21. D 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. A

31. A 32. D 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C

41. B 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. B

51. A 52. D 53. D 54. C 55. C 56. D 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. C