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BIOLOGY (Objective Questions And Answers)


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THEORY QUESTIONS
WAEC SYLLABUS

WASSCE 2007

Objectives



1. A change in the environment of an organism is termed

A. Sensitivity

B. Impulse

C. Response

D. Stimulus


2. Organisms that interbreed to produce fertile offspring belong to the same

A. Class

B. Family

C. Species

D. Order


3. The transfer of ripe pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is termed

A. Fertilization

B. Self pollination

C. Reproduction

D. Conjugation


4. The hereditary material in a living organisms is located inside the

A. Protein wall

B. Cytoplasm

C. Nucleus

D. Iysosome


5. Respiration is an essential life process providing the living cells with

A. Oxygen

B. Sugar

C. Energy

D. Carbon Dioxide


ANSWERS

6. The organelle involved in the transport of substances within a cell is

A. Golgi body

B. Endoplamic reticulum

C. Ribosome

D. Mitocchondrion


7. Which of the following processes takes place when a plant cell is put in a hypotonic solution?

A. Water moves into the cell and cell bursts

B. Water leaves the cell and the cell becomes flabby

C. Water moves into the cell and the cell becomes turgid

D. The cell becomes plasmolysed


8. The dominant stage in the life cycle of a fern is the

A. Antheridium

B. Gametophyte

C. Prothallus

D. Sporophyte


9. Yeast is added to the dough during the preparation of bread because it produces

A. Ethanol

B. Heat

C. Carbon dixoide

D. Carbohydrate.


10. Growth include the following processes except

A. Differentiation

B. Enlargement

C. Mitosis

D. Meiosis


ANSWERS

11. Which of the following processes is a form of sexual reproduction?

A. Budding by yeast cells

B. Conjugation in Spirogyra

C. Binary fission -in Amoeba

D. Rhizome production by ginger


12. The fine adjustment of the light microscope is used to

A. Admit more light into the microscope

B. Focus the object under low power

C. Focus the object under high power

D. raise the stage upwards


13. Which of these statements about white blood cells is true? They

A. Aid clotting of blood

B. Carry oxygen round the body

C. Are the most numerous blood cells

D. Are large nucleated cells


14. Which of the following blood vessels have valves?

A. Capillary

B. Artery

C. Vein

D. Arteriole


15. The malpighian body of the mammalian kidney is made up of

A. Cortex and medulla

B. Bowman's capsule and loop of Henle

C. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule

D. pelvis and pyramid


ANSWERS

16. The persistent presence of glucose in a person's urine indicates malfunctioning of the

A. Heart

B. Bladder

C. Pancreas

D. Stomach


17. The endocrine gland which co-ordinates the action of other glands and is also associated with the nervous system is the

A. Adrenal gland

B. Thyroid gland

C. Pituitary gland

D. Thymus gland


18. Insulin is produced by the

A. Adrenal gland

B. Gonads

C. Pituitary gland

D. Pancreas


19. Which of the following statements about nerve ceils is not correct?

A. The axon relay impdtoes from the cell body

B. The cell body is always found at the end of the neurone

C. Each neurone has a cell body

D. The dendrites of one neurone transmit impulses to the cell body


20. The smallest branches on the cell body of a neurone are called

A. Dendrites

B. Dendrons

C. Ganglia

D. Schwan cell


ANSWERS

21. A neurone that transmits impulses directly from sensory cells is called

A. An afferent neurone

B. An efferent neurone

C. A relay neurone

D. A peripheral neurone


22. Protection of the body cells of mammal's against ultra rays of the sun is brought about by

A. Keratin

B. Melanin

C. Sebum

D. Scales


23. In which of the following organisms is parental care manifested?

A. Tilapia

B. Toad

C. Cockroach

D. Snail


24. The site for production of ATP in a cell is

A. Ribosome

B. Cytoplasm

C. Golgi body

D. Mitoch 25.


25. In testing for starch in a leaf, the leaf is boiled in alcohol to

A. Kill the cells

B. Soften the leaf

C. Enable chemicals penetrate the leaf

D Decolourise the leaf


ANSWERS

26. The mode of nutrition common to green plants is

A. Autotrophic

B. Heterotrophic

C. Holozoic

D. Saprophytic


27. Micronutrients essential for the synthesis of chlorophyll include

A. Iron and potassium

B. Iron and magnesium

C. Magnesium and calcium

D. Magnesium and potassium


28. Biuret's test is carried out on a food substance to indicate the presence of

A. Vitamins

B. Fats

C. Proteins

D. Starch


29. In a test for non-reducing sugars like sucrose, what is the significance of adding dilute hydrochloric acid to the original sugar solution? To

A. Hydrolyse the non-reducing sugar

B. Accelerate the rate of the reaction

C. Stabilize the medium

D. Sterilize the solution


30. The colour that is associated with a positive iodine test is

A. Brown

B. Red

C. Blue-black

D. Yellow


ANSWERS

31. Enzymes can be inactivated by certain chemical s in the body called

A. Catalysts

B. Inhibitors

C. Substrates

D. Activators


32. Which of the following enzymes is not one of the main classes of enzymes? A. Sucrase

B. Amylases

C. Proteases

D. Lipases


Use the following equations to answer question 33 I - Boiled saliva + starch -> X II - Fresh saliva + starch -> Y


33. What substances do X and Y represent?

A. X = Maltose and Y = Sugar

B. X = Starch and Y = Maltose

C. X = Sugar and Y = Starch

D. X = Maltose and Y = Starch


34. Which of the following enzymes does not belong to proteases?

A. Sucrase

B. Pepsin

C. Trypsin

D. Erepsin


35. Which of the following protozoans feeds parasitically?

A. Paramecium

B. Chlamydomonas

C. Plasmodium

D. Euglena


ANSWERS

36. Which of the following features of the tadpole indicates that the animals is herbivorous? Possession of

A. Operculum

B. Muscular tail

C. Long coiled intestine

D. Internal


37. The term community is defined as

A. The different groups of plants and animals in the same area

and interacting with each other

B. The consumers and producers living in a habitat

C. Living organisms interacting with physical factor of an environment

D. Animals which mutually derive benefit from their association


38. Which of the following organisms are the producers in an aquatic habitat?

A. Benthons

B. Phytoplanktons

C. Zooplanktons

D. Nektons


39. Wind speed is measured with

A. A maximum-minimum thermometer

B. A hygrometer

C. A wet and dry bulb hygrometer

D. An anemometer


40. The amount of energy passed from one trophic level to the next decreases because

A. Many organisms are present at the first trophic level

B. Many organisms occur at the higher trophic level

C. More energy is conserved at lower trophic levels

D. Parts of the organisms remain unutilised at each trophic level.


ANSWERS

41. Which of these values in kj/m2 likely represent the energy content of the producers in a habitat?

A. 5033

B. 100

C. 12

D. 10


42. The major pollutant around airport residential area is

A. oil spillage

B. soot

C. noise

D. dust


43. The effect of chlorofluorocarbon is

A. Reduction of oxygen concentration in the atmosphere

B. Depletion of the ozone layer

C. screening of ultra violet rays

D. increase in carbon dixoide concentration


44. The order of primary succession by plants in a very dry habitat is

A. Xerophytes -> mesophytes -> shrub

B. Mesophyte -> xerophytes -> shrub

C. Mesophyte -> shrub -> xerophytes

D. Xerophytes -> shrub -> mesophyte


45. A population which exceeds its carrying capacity and then collapses is represented graphically as a

A. Bell shaped curve

B. Skewed curve

C. S-shaped curve

D. Linear curve


ANSWERS

46. Which of the following infections would not respond to an antibiotic treatment?

A. Gonorrhoea

B. Measles

C. Diarrhoea

D Tubercuosis


47. The vector of the sleeping sickness disease parasite is the

A. Cockroach

B. Mosquito

C. Black fly

D. Tse-tse fly


48. Which of the following bacteria lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants?

A. Azotobacter

B. Nitrobacter

C. Rhizobium

D. Nitrosomonas


49. Engered species are organisms that ought to be

A. Hunted

B. Killed

C. Poached

D. Protected


50. Which of the following substances is not a conservable natural resource?

A. Minerals

B. Air

C. Soil

D. Water


ANSWERS

51. Which of the following actions do not reflect the objectives of conservation of natural resources?

A. Protection of the ecosystem

B. Saving some species from extinction

C. Elimination of some wild animals to enable others

D. survive I prevention of indiscriminate killing of organism


52. Which of the following forms of variation will give a normal distribution?

A. Blood groups

B. Tongue rolling

C. Body weight

D. Finger prints


53. Two tall plants were crossed some of their offspring were M and others short the possible genotypes of the parent piants were

A. TT and TT

B. TT and tt

C. Tt and Tt

D. Tt and TT


54. The character that is manifested in an organism in the cesence of a contrasting character is known as

A. Genotype

B. Phenotype

C. Recessive

D. Dominant


55. What is the probability of producing a child of blood group O by a woman of blood group O and a man of blood group A?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D.100%


ANSWERS

56. An albino man marries a normal woman (homozygous for skin pigmentation). What is the probability that the couple could have an albino child?

A. 0%

B. 0.5%

C. 25%

D. 60%


57. If a cross between a red- flowered plant and a white flowered plant produced red flowered plants, the result can be described as an example of

A. Partial recessiveness

B. Dominance

C. Incomplete dominance

D. Out breeding


58. Which of the following inherited conditions usually shows incomplete dominance?

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Heamophilia

C. Tongue rolling ability

D. Baldness


59. The theory of suvival of the fittest was propounded by

A. Darwin

B. Lamarck

C. Linnaeus

D. Mendel


60. A termite with a relatively large head and powerful jaws is likely to be a

A. King

B. Queen

C. Solider

D. Reproductive



WASSCE JUNE 2007 BIOLOGY

OBJECTIVE TEST ANSWERS

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. D

11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A

21. A 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. C

31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C

41. A 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. A

51. C 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. C


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